While our children were in high school we hosted several
European exchange students in our home for whom English was a second, third, or even fourth language. I was surprised when they told me that they considered English an
easy language to learn, or at least less complicated than their own (French,
Polish, German and Hungarian). What they meant by this was the lack of gender
for most nouns and the simplified verb forms, not our beloved illogical English
spelling.
John McWhorter, in “Myths, Lies, and Half-Truths of Language
Usage” (The Great Courses), explains two quite different stages in the
development of English where simplification occurred. The first occurred at the
Proto-Germanic stage and therefore affected all the Germanic languages. The
second occurred between Old and Middle English. In this post I’ll explore the
first.
Compared to the other branches of Indo-European (e.g. Latin,
Greek, Celtic, Persian, Sanskrit and Slavic), Proto-Germanic is different in
several striking ways. One was the shift in consonants which is known as
Grimm’s Law (discussed in an earlier post) where “p” becomes “f”, “k” becomes
“h” etc. Another was a significant loss of complexity of verb forms. Where
other IE language families have different verb forms for I, we (you & I),
we (you, I & others), you (singular), you (plural) and they, PG had only
one “we” and had the same verb form for “we”, “you all” and
“they”. Verb tenses were also simplified to four (present, past, subjunctive and
passive) from six in Indo-European. There were also some internal vowel changes
in verb tenses introduced to Proto-Germanic (which I don’t understand so won’t
attempt to explain here). Then there is vocabulary – many Germanic words were
borrowed early on from the neighboring Indo-European languages of Roman and
Celtic, but up to a third of Germanic roots are believed to be of
non-Indo-European source. What was going
on here?
This type of language change (significant simplification) is
not the normal pattern. In fact it is only seen when a language is learned by a
group as adults. Who could these adults be?
First keep in mind that nearly all of the wide distribution
of Indo-European languages is the result of imposition of the language on
existing inhabitants by an introduced ruling class (either military or
mercantile), rather than by mass migration of Indo-European speakers. See my
post on the PIE Homeland. It had been proposed by Colin Renfrew (and others) that the Indo-European languages were introduced to Europe
along with agriculture by farmers migrating west and north from Anatolia
(modern Turkey ).
It made a nice neat theory but turned out not to be true – agriculture preceded
IE languages by several thousand years in Europe .
There were therefore, by the time the Indo-European language was advancing up
the Danube into northwest Europe , farmers
settled there with their own languages, whatever they may have been. It was
these people who learned Indo-European as adults and adopted it as their own.
There is some linguistic evidence suggesting that these
northwestern European people who learned Indo-European, and made it into
Proto-Germanic, spoke a Semitic language (of which Arabic and Hebrew are members). Semitic languages are rich in the internal vowel changes of the kind seen in
Proto-Germanic verbs; the fricative consonants “f”, “h”, and “th” introduced to
Proto-Germanic as explained in Grimm’s Law are common in Semitic languages, and
a few of the non-PIE Germanic roots seem to have a Semitic connection. This
Semitic influence theory, promoted by Prof. Theo Vennemann, is quite
controversial.
One theory to explain a Semitic influence on Germanic
languages has the Phoenicians, a Semitic speaking sea-faring people who are
known to have reached Portugal ,
to have sailed all the way around to north-western Europe – the Netherlands perhaps or even Denmark . This
is highly speculative at best, as there is no archaeological evidence and so
far to my knowledge no genetic evidence, to support their presence that far
north. My theory (and you saw it here first) is that some influence of Semitic
languages had accompanied agriculture as it made its way from the middle east
to northwestern Europe. One of Bryan Sykes' maternal ancestors of modern Europeans described in his 2001 book " The Seven Daughters of Eve" is Jasmine who originated in the middle east and is associated with the spread of agriculture into Europe. Her genes spread into Europe and it seems quite likely that her language did as well, hundreds of years before the introduction ofGermanic Indo-European languages.
Whoever the first speakers of Proto-Germanic were, we owe
them our gratitude for helping to simplify not only English but every other
Germanic language spoken today.
The next stage of simplification for English, which occurred
during the transition from Old English to Middle English, is credited to, of
all people, the Norse Vikings who settled in northern England . But
that’s a story for another week.
No I am beginning to understand this. If agriculture originated in the Middle East, spread to Anatolia and then into Europe, up the Danube, it makes sense that Semitic languages would have moved with it. So IE languages, inflicted from on high, would have been learned by adults as a second language and naturally simplified.
ReplyDeleteI keep wondering why Russian hasn't been simplified. The endings drive me nuts. But English verb tenses drive Tanya crazy. How many are there anyhow? Dozens, I think. How did THAT happen?
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